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Old 02-17-2011, 07:06 AM   #4
Senior Member
Join Date: Feb 2010
Posts: 135

Yes, thanks for the update. I'm still following this, albeit from afar.

My question is: from a legal perspective, given that the gov't took large ownership stakes in each of the 'new' entities (whether in cash or equity) how does 'eminent domain' not have some factor?

Doesn't eminent domain constitutionally require remuneration for assets seized by the gov't?

This was never mentioned in any of the congressional inquiries that I watched, or in the any of the BK court proceedings that I attended. It bugged the hell out of me.
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